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Information
Subject: Physics
Syllabus: Chapter – Electric Charges and Fields
Duration: 21 min.
Read the following instruction carefully.
- There are 21 total questions in this test
- Each question has 4 options out of which only one is correct.
- You will be awarded 4 points for each correct answer.
- Your Score will be shown after submitting the test.
- In this quiz you are going to check your conceptual knowledge.
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- Answered
- Review
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Question 1 of 21
1. Question
4 pointsSI unit of permittivity of free space is-
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Question 2 of 21
2. Question
4 pointsA charge Q is placed at the centre of the line joining two point charges +q and +q as shown in the figure. If the system of these three charges is in equilibrium then the ratio of charges Q and q is
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Question 3 of 21
3. Question
4 pointsThe force per unit charge is known as
-
Question 4 of 21
4. Question
4 pointsElectric field lines provide information about
-
Question 5 of 21
5. Question
4 pointsWhich of the following figures represent the electric field lines due to a single negative charge?
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Question 6 of 21
6. Question
4 pointsThe SI unit of electric flux is
-
Question 7 of 21
7. Question
4 pointsThe unit of electric dipole moment is
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Question 8 of 21
8. Question
4 pointsConsider a region inside which, there are various types of charges but the total charge is zero. At points outside the region
-
Question 9 of 21
9. Question
4 pointsThe surface considered for Gauss’s law is called
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Question 10 of 21
10. Question
4 pointsThe total flux through the faces of the cube with side of length a if a charge q is placed at corner A of the cube is
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Question 11 of 21
11. Question
4 pointsWhich of the following statement is true?
-
Question 12 of 21
12. Question
4 pointsFive balls named A to E are suspended using separate threads. Pairs (A, B), (B, D) and (D, A) show electrostatic attraction, while pairs (B, C) and (D, E) show repulsion. Therefore, ball A must be
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Question 13 of 21
13. Question
4 pointsTwo charges +Q and +2Q are situated at the ends of a straight line. Another charge +q is placed at the mid-point of the line, then choose the correct statement regarding the charge +q.
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Question 14 of 21
14. Question
4 pointsAn arrangement of three fixed electric charges is as shown below. In each arrangement, at point P, a test charge +q have been placed. The charges and point P all lie on a straight line. The distances between adjacent items, either between two charges or
between a charge and point P, all are the same.Correct order of magnitude of force on P in a decreasing order is
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Question 15 of 21
15. Question
4 pointsA positron and an electron are located in a uniform electric field, they will experience
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Question 16 of 21
16. Question
4 pointsElectric force at a point is given by \( \displaystyle F=\frac{1}{{4\pi {{\varepsilon }_{0}}}}{{q}_{0}}\int{{\frac{{\sigma ds}}{{{{r}_{0}}^{2}}}\widehat{{{{r}_{0}}}}}}\)
The nature of charges are
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Question 17 of 21
17. Question
4 pointsA uniformly charged solid cube has its dimensions (a × a × a)cm3. The variation of electric field at r >> a can be represented by
-
Question 18 of 21
18. Question
4 points -
Question 19 of 21
19. Question
4 pointsThe electric field acting at a certain region is given by the expression E = Ar2. A charge
contained in a sphere of radius a centred at the origin of the field will be given by -
Question 20 of 21
20. Question
4 pointsAn electric dipole has a pair of equal and opposite point charges q and − q are
separated by a distance 2x. The axis of the dipole is defined as -
Question 21 of 21
21. Question
4 pointsAn electric dipole of dipole length 2 cm is placed in a uniform electric field intensity 2 × 105 N/C, making an angle 30° with the field. If it experiences a torque equal to 4 N-m, the charge on the dipole is
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Information
Subject: Physics
Syllabus: Electricity
Duration: 40 Min.
Read the following instruction carefully.
- There are 40 total questions in this test
- Each question has 4 options out of which only one is
- Your Score & Rank will be shown after submitting the test.
- In this quiz you are going to check the conceptual knowledge of Electricity
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- Answered
- Review
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Question 1 of 40
1. Question
4 pointsWhich of the following I-V graph represents ohmic conductors?
-
Question 2 of 40
2. Question
4 pointsThe resistivity of alloy manganin is
-
Question 3 of 40
3. Question
4 pointsAn electric heater is connected to the voltag supply. After few seconds, current gets its steady value then its initial current will be
-
Question 4 of 40
4. Question
4 pointsIn the series combination of two or more than two resistances
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Question 5 of 40
5. Question
4 pointsCombine three resistors \( \displaystyle 5\Omega ,\,\,4.5\Omega \,\,\And \,3\Omega \) in such a way that the total resistance of this combination is maximum
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Question 6 of 40
6. Question
4 pointsA cell having an emf ε and internal resistance r is connected across a variable external resistance R. As the resistance R is increased, the plot of potential difference V across R is given by
-
Question 7 of 40
7. Question
4 pointsIf n cells each of emf ε and internal resistance r are connected in parallel, then the total emf and internal resistance will be
-
Question 8 of 40
8. Question
4 pointsIn a wheatstone bridge if the battery and galvanometer are interchanged then the
deflection in galvanometer will -
Question 9 of 40
9. Question
4 pointsDIRECTION: Read the two statements Assertion (A) and Reason (R) carefully to mark the correct option out of the options given below:
Assertion: Chemical reactions involved in primary cells are irreversible and in secondary cells are reversible.
Reason: Primary cells can be recharged, but secondary cells cannot be recharged. -
Question 10 of 40
10. Question
4 pointsDIRECTION: Read the two statements Assertion (A) and Reason (R) carefully to mark the correct option out of the options given below:
Assertion: It the length of the conductor is doubled, the drift velocity will become half of
the original value (keeping potential) difference unchanged).
Reason: At constant potential difference, drift velocity is inversely proportional to the length of the conductor. -
Question 11 of 40
11. Question
4 pointsDIRECTION: Read the two statements Assertion (A) and Reason (R) carefully to mark the correct option out of the options given below:
Assertion: The 200 W bulbs glows with more brightness than 100 W bulbs.
Reason: A 100 watt bulb has more resistance than a 200 W bulb. -
Question 12 of 40
12. Question
4 pointsDIRECTION: Read the two statements Assertion (A) and Reason (R) carefully to mark the correct option out of the options given below:
Assertion: Two electric bulbs of 50 Watt and 100 watt are given. When connected in series 50 watt bulb glows more but when connected in parallel 100 watt bulb glows more.
Reason: In series combination, power is directly proportional to the resistance of circuit. But in parallel combination, power is inversely proportional to the resistance of the circuit. -
Question 13 of 40
13. Question
4 pointsAs the temperature increases, the resistance of the metallic conductors increases because
-
Question 14 of 40
14. Question
4 pointsA wire of length l is stretched by 10%, the percentage increase in resistance will be
-
Question 15 of 40
15. Question
4 pointsTwo wires are joined together in series. The temperature coefficient of resistance wires are R1 and R2 is α1 and α2, respectively. The effective temperature coefficient of resistance is
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Question 16 of 40
16. Question
4 pointsFor two incandescent bulbs of rated power P1 and P2, if P1 > P2. Then, choose the correct statement.
-
Question 17 of 40
17. Question
4 points -
Question 18 of 40
18. Question
4 points -
Question 19 of 40
19. Question
4 points -
Question 20 of 40
20. Question
4 pointsWhich of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect?
-
Question 21 of 40
21. Question
4 pointsDIRECTION: Read the two statements Assertion (A) and Reason (R) carefully to mark the correct option out of the options given below:
Assertion: The electron drift velocity is small and the charge on the electron is also small but still, we obtain large current in a conductor.
Reason: This is due to the conducting property of the conductor. -
Question 22 of 40
22. Question
4 pointsDIRECTION: Read the two statements Assertion (A) and Reason (R) carefully to mark the correct option out of the options given below:
Assertion: During charging, the current flows in opposite directions in a cell.
Reason: Terminal voltage of the cell is higher than the emf of the cell. -
Question 23 of 40
23. Question
4 points -
Question 24 of 40
24. Question
4 pointsWhen no electric field is present.
I. The electrons will be moving due to thermal motion during which they collide with the fixed ions.II. An electron colliding with an ion emerges with the same speed as before the collision. However the direction of its velocity after the collision is completely random.
III. At a given time, there is no preferential direction for the velocities of the electrons. Thus, on an average, the number of electrons travelling in any direction will be equal to the number of electrons travelling in the opposite direction. So, there will be no net electric current.
Which of the above statements are correct?
-
Question 25 of 40
25. Question
4 points -
Question 26 of 40
26. Question
4 pointsWhich of the following I-V graph represents ohmic conductors ?
-
Question 27 of 40
27. Question
4 points -
Question 28 of 40
28. Question
4 points -
Question 29 of 40
29. Question
4 points -
Question 30 of 40
30. Question
4 points -
Question 31 of 40
31. Question
4 pointsFour resistors R1, R2, R3 and R4 are connected in different ways. Which of the following combinations will draw the maximum current when connected to a battery ?
-
Question 32 of 40
32. Question
4 points -
Question 33 of 40
33. Question
4 points -
Question 34 of 40
34. Question
4 points -
Question 35 of 40
35. Question
4 pointsA cell having an emf H and internal resistance r is connected across a variable external resistance R. As the resistance R is increased, the plot of potential difference V across R is given by
-
Question 36 of 40
36. Question
4 points -
Question 37 of 40
37. Question
4 points -
Question 38 of 40
38. Question
4 points -
Question 39 of 40
39. Question
4 points -
Question 40 of 40
40. Question
4 points
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Information
Subject: Physics
Class: XII
Syllabus: Moving Charges and Magnetism
Duration: 26 min.
Read the following instruction carefully.
- There are 26 total questions in this test
- Each question has 4 options out of which only one is correct.
- You will be awarded 4 points for each correct answer.
- Your Score & Rank will be shown after submitting the test.
- In this quiz you are going to check your conceptual knowledge.
You have already completed the Test before. Hence you can not start it again.
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- Answered
- Review
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Question 1 of 26
1. Question
4 pointsWhich of the following statement(s) is/are correct for the magnetic field strength at a point due to a long straight conductor?
-
Question 2 of 26
2. Question
4 pointsIn a long straight wire placed along Z-axis , a current i flows in the negative z-direction. At a point (x, y) in a plane z = 0, the magnetic field B is
-
Question 3 of 26
3. Question
4 points -
Question 4 of 26
4. Question
4 pointsAn electron is moving in a circular path under the influence of a transverse magnetic field 3.57 × 10−2 T. If the value of \( \displaystyle \frac{e}{m}\) is 1.76×1011 C/kg, then the frequency of revolution of the electron is
-
Question 5 of 26
5. Question
4 points -
Question 6 of 26
6. Question
4 points -
Question 7 of 26
7. Question
4 pointsThe full scale deflection current of a galvanometer of resistance 1Ω is 5 mA. The value of shunt to be added in series to convert it into a voltmeter of range 5 V is
-
Question 8 of 26
8. Question
4 pointsDIRECTION: Read the two statements Assertion (A) and Reason (R) carefully to mark the correct option out of the options given below:
Assertion: The net force on a closed current loop placed in a uniform magnetic field is zero.
Reason: The torque produced in a conducting loop is zero, when it is placed in a uniform magnetic field such that magnetic field is perpendicular to the plane of the loop. -
Question 9 of 26
9. Question
4 pointsA strong magnetic field is applied on a stationary electron. Then the electron
-
Question 10 of 26
10. Question
4 pointsIn an inertial frame of reference, the magnetic force on a moving charged particle is \(\displaystyle \overrightarrow{F}\) . Its value in another inertial frame of reference will be
-
Question 11 of 26
11. Question
4 pointsA charged particle is moving on circular path with velocity v in a uniform magnetic field B, if the velocity of the charged particle is doubled and strength of magnetic field is halved, then radius becomes
-
Question 12 of 26
12. Question
4 pointsTwo α-particles have the ratio of their velocities as 3 : 2 on entering the field. If they move in different circular paths, then the ratio of the radii of their paths is
-
Question 13 of 26
13. Question
4 pointsIf an electron is moving with velocity \( \displaystyle \overrightarrow{v}\) produces a magnetic field \( \displaystyle \overrightarrow{B}\) , then
-
Question 14 of 26
14. Question
4 pointsCurrent flows through uniform, square frames as shown in the figure. In which case is the magnetic field at the centre of the frame not zero?
-
Question 15 of 26
15. Question
4 pointsAmpere’s circuital law is given by
-
Question 16 of 26
16. Question
4 pointsThe correct plot of the magnitude of magnetic field \( \displaystyle {\overrightarrow{B}}\) vs distance r from centre of the wire is, if the radius of wire is R
-
Question 17 of 26
17. Question
4 pointsDIRECTION: Read the two statements Assertion (A) and Reason (R) carefully to mark the correct option out of the options given below:
Assertion: When force is zero, the charged particle follows linear path.
Reason: A charged particle enters in a uniform magnetic field, whose velocity makes an angle θ with magnetic field will cover a linear path. -
Question 18 of 26
18. Question
4 pointsDIRECTION: Read the two statements Assertion (A) and Reason (R) carefully to mark the correct option out of the options given below:
Assertion: An electron and proton enters a magnetic field with equal velocities, then the
force experienced by proton will be more than electron.
Reason: The mass of proton is 1837 times more than the mass of electron. -
Question 19 of 26
19. Question
4 pointsDIRECTION: Read the two statements Assertion (A) and Reason (R) carefully to mark the correct option out of the options given below:
Assertion: When a magnetic dipole is placed in a non uniform magnetic field, only a torque acts on the dipole.
Reason: Force would act on dipole if magnetic field is uniform. -
Question 20 of 26
20. Question
4 pointsDIRECTION: Read the two statements Assertion (A) and Reason (R) carefully to mark the correct option out of the options given below:
Assertion: An ammeter is a connected in series in the circuit.
Reason: An ammeter is a high resistance galvanometer. -
Question 21 of 26
21. Question
4 pointsDIRECTION: Read the two statements Assertion (A) and Reason (R) carefully to mark the correct option out of the options given below:
Assertion: The magnetic field at the centre of circular coil carrying current changes, if the current through the coil is doubled.
Reason: The magnetic field intensity is dependent on current in conductor. -
Question 22 of 26
22. Question
4 pointsThe conversion of a moving coil galvanometer into a voltmeter is done by
-
Question 23 of 26
23. Question
4 pointsA moving coil galvanometer can be converted into an ammeter by
-
Question 24 of 26
24. Question
4 pointsA current carrying loop is placed in a uniform magnetic field. The torque acting on it does not
depend upon -
Question 25 of 26
25. Question
4 pointsIn a moving coil galvanometer the deflection (Φ) on the scale by a pointer attached to the spring is
-
Question 26 of 26
26. Question
4 pointsThe magnetic moment of a current I carrying circular coil of radius r and number of turns N
varies as
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Information
Subject: Physics
Syllabus: Electromagnetic Waves
Duration: 1 Hr 15Min.
Read the following instruction carefully.
- There are 75 total questions in this test
- Each question has 4 options out of which only one is correct.
- You will be awarded 4 points for each correct answer.
- Your Score & Rank will be shown after submitting the test.
- In this quiz you are going to check your conceptual knowledge.
You have already completed the Test before. Hence you can not start it again.
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- 75
- Answered
- Review
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Question 1 of 75
1. Question
4 pointsWhich of the following radiations has the least wavelength?
-
Question 2 of 75
2. Question
4 pointsWhich of the following has/have zero average value in a plane electromagnetic wave ?
-
Question 3 of 75
3. Question
4 pointsThe ratio of electric field vector E and magnetic field vector H i.e., \(\left( {\frac{E}{H}} \right)\) has the dimensions of
-
Question 4 of 75
4. Question
4 pointsThe ozone layer absorbs radiation of wavelengths
-
Question 5 of 75
5. Question
4 pointsThe speed of electromagnetic wave in vacuum depends upon the source of radiation. It
-
Question 6 of 75
6. Question
4 pointsIn which one of the following regions of the electromagnetic spectrum will the vibrational motion of molecules give rise to absorption?
-
Question 7 of 75
7. Question
4 pointsThe oscillating electric and magnetic vectors of an electromagnetic wave are oriented along
-
Question 8 of 75
8. Question
4 pointsBiological importance of ozone layer is
-
Question 9 of 75
9. Question
4 pointsDirection: For given questions two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R).
Assertion: Displacement current goes through the gap between the plates of a capacitor when the charge of the capacitor does not change.
Reason: The displacement current arises in the region in which the electric field is constant with time. -
Question 10 of 75
10. Question
4 pointsDirection: For given questions two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R).
Assertion: Electromagnetic wave are transverse in nature.
Reason: The electric and magnetic fields in electromagnetic waves are perpendicular to each other and the direction of propagation. -
Question 11 of 75
11. Question
4 pointsDirection: For given questions two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R).
Assertion: Electromagnetic waves interact with matter and set up oscillations.
Reason: Interaction is independent of the wavelength of the electromagnetic wave. -
Question 12 of 75
12. Question
4 pointsDirection: For given questions two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R).
Assertion: Electromagnetic waves carry energy andmomentum.
Reason: Electromagnetic waves can be polarised. -
Question 13 of 75
13. Question
4 pointsDirection: For given questions two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R).
Assertion: The velocity of electromagnetic waves depends on electric and magnetic properties of the medium.
Reason: Velocity of electromagnetic waves in free space is constant. -
Question 14 of 75
14. Question
4 pointsThe current in the electric circuit which arises due to flow of electrons in the connecting wires of the circuit in a defined closed path is called
-
Question 15 of 75
15. Question
4 pointsDisplacement current goes through the gap between the plates of a capacitor when the charge on the capacitor
-
Question 16 of 75
16. Question
4 pointsDisplacement current is
-
Question 17 of 75
17. Question
4 pointsThe displacement current is
-
Question 18 of 75
18. Question
4 pointsIf \(\overrightarrow E \) and \(\overrightarrow {B\,} \) represent the electric and magnetic field vectors of an electromagnetic wave, then the direction of propagation of the electromagnetic wave, is along
-
Question 19 of 75
19. Question
4 pointsAccording to Maxwell’s hypothesis, a changing electric field gives rise to
-
Question 20 of 75
20. Question
4 pointsAn electromagnetic wave propagating along north has its electric field vector upwards. Its magnetic field vector point towards
-
Question 21 of 75
21. Question
4 pointsThe electromagnetic waves
-
Question 22 of 75
22. Question
4 pointsWhich of the following type of radiations are radiated by an oscillating electric charge?
-
Question 23 of 75
23. Question
4 pointsIf \(\overrightarrow E \) and \(\overrightarrow {B\,} \) are the electric and magnetic field vectors of e.m. waves then the direction of propagation of e m. wave is along the direction of
-
Question 24 of 75
24. Question
4 pointsAccording to Maxwell’s equation the velocity of light in any medium is expressed as
-
Question 25 of 75
25. Question
4 pointsThe electromagnetic waves do not transport
-
Question 26 of 75
26. Question
4 pointsThe amplitudes of electric and magnetic fields related to each other are
-
Question 27 of 75
27. Question
4 pointsIn an electromagnetic wave, the direction of the magnetic induction \(\overrightarrow {B\,} \) is
-
Question 28 of 75
28. Question
4 pointsThe speed of electromagnetic wave is same for
-
Question 29 of 75
29. Question
4 pointsA plane electromagnetic wave is incident on a material surface. If the wave delivers momentum p and energy E, then
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Question 30 of 75
30. Question
4 pointsWe consider the radiation emitted by the human body.
Which one of the following statements is true? -
Question 31 of 75
31. Question
4 pointsThe decreasing order of wavelength of infrared, microwave, ultraviolet and gamma rays is
-
Question 32 of 75
32. Question
4 pointsX-rays, gamma rays and microwaves travelling in vaccum have
-
Question 33 of 75
33. Question
4 pointsRadio waves diffract around building, although light waves do not. The reason is that radio waves
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Question 34 of 75
34. Question
4 pointsMicrowaves are detected by
-
Question 35 of 75
35. Question
4 pointsWhich of the following electromagnetic waves has the longest wavelength?
-
Question 36 of 75
36. Question
4 pointsWhich of the following is of shortest wavelength?
-
Question 37 of 75
37. Question
4 pointsThe range of wavelength of visible light is
-
Question 38 of 75
38. Question
4 pointsWhich of the following is not electromagnetic waves?
-
Question 39 of 75
39. Question
4 pointsWhich of the following electromagnetic radiations have the smallest wavelength?
-
Question 40 of 75
40. Question
4 pointsWhich of the following rays has minimum frequency?
-
Question 41 of 75
41. Question
4 pointsAn accelerated electron would produce
-
Question 42 of 75
42. Question
4 pointsWhich of the following is the infrared wavelength?
-
Question 43 of 75
43. Question
4 pointsThe wavelength of X-ray is of the order of
-
Question 44 of 75
44. Question
4 pointsRadio waves of constant amplitude can be generated with
-
Question 45 of 75
45. Question
4 pointsRadio waves do not penetrate in the band of
-
Question 46 of 75
46. Question
4 pointsWhat is the cause of “Green house effect”?
-
Question 47 of 75
47. Question
4 pointsIf vs, vx and vm are the speed of soft gamma rays, X-rays and microwaves respectively in vacuum, then
-
Question 48 of 75
48. Question
4 pointsThe waves which are electromagnetic in nature are
-
Question 49 of 75
49. Question
4 pointsIn electromagnetic spectrum, the frequencies \(\gamma – {\rm{Rays}}\), X-rays and ultraviolet rays are denoted by n1, n2 and n3 respectivelythen
-
Question 50 of 75
50. Question
4 pointsUltraviolet spectrum can be studied by using a
-
Question 51 of 75
51. Question
4 pointsThe ozone layer in the atmosphere absorbs
-
Question 52 of 75
52. Question
4 pointsWhich one of the following has the maximum energy?
-
Question 53 of 75
53. Question
4 pointsWhich one of the following has the shortest wavelength?
-
Question 54 of 75
54. Question
4 pointsWhen electromagnetic waves enter the ionised layer of ionosphere, then the relative permittivity i.e. dielectric constant of the ionised layer
-
Question 55 of 75
55. Question
4 pointsUltraviolet rays coming from sun are absorbed by
-
Question 56 of 75
56. Question
4 pointsThe EM waves when travel into different media gets
-
Question 57 of 75
57. Question
4 pointsThe absorption of radio waves by the atmosphere depends upon
-
Question 58 of 75
58. Question
4 pointsThe velocity of all radio waves in free space is 3 × 108 m/s. The frequency of a radio wave of wavelength 150m is
-
Question 59 of 75
59. Question
4 pointsThe polarisation of electromagnetic wave is in
-
Question 60 of 75
60. Question
4 pointsIf the frequency of EM radiations is halved then the energy of EM radiation will become
-
Question 61 of 75
61. Question
4 pointsFor television broadcasting the frequency employed is normally
-
Question 62 of 75
62. Question
4 pointsElectromagnetic waves of frequency …. are reflected from ionosphere.
-
Question 63 of 75
63. Question
4 pointsWhen an electromagnetic wave enters an ionised layer of earth’s atmosphere present in ionosphere
-
Question 64 of 75
64. Question
4 pointsAn electron oscillating with a frequency of 3 × 106 Hz, would generate
-
Question 65 of 75
65. Question
4 pointsThe cellular mobile radio frequency band is
-
Question 66 of 75
66. Question
4 pointsSelect the wrong statement. EM waves
-
Question 67 of 75
67. Question
4 pointsOzone layer above earth’s atmosphere will not
-
Question 68 of 75
68. Question
4 pointsIntensity of electromagnetic wave will be
-
Question 69 of 75
69. Question
4 pointsThe frequency of electromagnetic wave, which best suited to observe a particle of radii 3 × 10–4 cm is of the order of
-
Question 70 of 75
70. Question
4 pointsIf \(\lambda = 10\mathop {\rm{A}}\limits^{\rm{o}} \) then it corresponds to
-
Question 71 of 75
71. Question
4 points10 cm is a wavelength corresponding to the spectrum of
-
Question 72 of 75
72. Question
4 pointsIn an electromagnetic wave
-
Question 73 of 75
73. Question
4 pointsThe electric and the magnetic field associated with an E.M. wave, propagating along the +z-axis, can be represented by
-
Question 74 of 75
74. Question
4 pointsThe condition under which a microwave oven heats up a food item containing water molecules most efficiently is
-
Question 75 of 75
75. Question
4 pointsWhich of the following is/are true for electromagnetic waves?
I. They transport energy.
II. They have momentum.
III. They travel at different speeds in air depending on their frequency
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Information
Subject: Physics
Syllabus: Ray Optics and Optical Instruments
Duration: 52 Min.
Read the following instruction carefully.
- There are 52 total questions in this test
- Each question has 4 options out of which only one is correct.
- You will be awarded 4 points for each correct answer and 1 point will be deducted for each wrong answer.
- Try not to guess the answer as there is negative marking.
- Your Score & Rank will be shown after submitting the test.
- In this quiz you are going to check your conceptual knowledge.
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- Review
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Question 1 of 52
1. Question
4 pointsElectromagnetic radiation belonging to _________ region of spectrum is called light.
-
Question 2 of 52
2. Question
4 pointsThe turning back of light into the same medium after incident on a boundary separating two media is called
-
Question 3 of 52
3. Question
4 pointsA point source of light is placed in front of a plane mirror. Then
-
Question 4 of 52
4. Question
4 pointsThe field of view is maximum for
-
Question 5 of 52
5. Question
4 pointsA virtual image larger than the object can be obtained by
-
Question 6 of 52
6. Question
4 pointsAn object is placed 40 cm from a concave mirror of focal length 20 cm. The image formed is
-
Question 7 of 52
7. Question
4 pointsAll of the following statements are correct except
-
Question 8 of 52
8. Question
4 pointsA person is six feet tall. How tall must a plane mirror be if he is able to see his entire length?
-
Question 9 of 52
9. Question
4 pointsThe image formed by a concave mirror is
-
Question 10 of 52
10. Question
4 pointsFor reflection through spherical surfaces, the normal at the point of incidence is
-
Question 11 of 52
11. Question
4 pointsWhich of the following (referred to a spherical mirror) depends on whether the rays are paraxial or not?
-
Question 12 of 52
12. Question
4 pointsWhich of the following is correct for the beam which enters the medium?
-
Question 13 of 52
13. Question
4 pointsWhen light is refracted, which of the following does not change ?
-
Question 14 of 52
14. Question
4 pointsTotal internal reflection can take place only if
-
Question 15 of 52
15. Question
4 pointsThe difference between reflection and total internal reflection is that
-
Question 16 of 52
16. Question
4 pointsWhen the angle of incidence of a light ray is greater than the critical angle it gets
-
Question 17 of 52
17. Question
4 pointsWhich of the following phenomena is used in optical fibres ?
-
Question 18 of 52
18. Question
4 pointsCritical angle of light passing from glass to water is minimum for
-
Question 19 of 52
19. Question
4 pointsWhich of the following is not due to total internal reflection?
-
Question 20 of 52
20. Question
4 pointsIdentify the wrong sign convention
-
Question 21 of 52
21. Question
4 pointsThe apparent flattening of the sun at sunset and sunrise is due to
-
Question 22 of 52
22. Question
4 pointsThe speed of light in an isotropic medium depends on
-
Question 23 of 52
23. Question
4 pointsA parallel beam of light is incident on a converging lens parallel to its principal axis. As one moves away from thelens on the other side on its principal axis, the intensity of light
-
Question 24 of 52
24. Question
4 pointsThe focal length of a converging lens are \({f_V}\,\,and\,\,{f_R}\)for violet and red light respectively. Then
-
Question 25 of 52
25. Question
4 pointsA narrow beam of white light goes through a slab having parallel faces
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Question 26 of 52
26. Question
4 pointsWhich of the following is Lens maker’s formula?
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Question 27 of 52
27. Question
4 pointsWhen white light enters a prism, it gets split into its constituent colours. This is due to
-
Question 28 of 52
28. Question
4 pointsYellow light is refracted through a prism producing minimum deviation. If \({i_1}\,\,and\,\,{i_2}\) denote the angle of incidence and emergence for this prism, then
-
Question 29 of 52
29. Question
4 pointsWhen the incidence angle is equal to the angle of emergence of light from the prism the refracted ray inside the prism
-
Question 30 of 52
30. Question
4 pointsThe angle of prism is 60° and angle of deviation is 30°. In the position of minimum deviation, the values of angleof incidence and angle of emergence are:
-
Question 31 of 52
31. Question
4 pointsWhen light rays undergoes two internal reflection inside a raindrop, which of the rainbow is formed?
-
Question 32 of 52
32. Question
4 pointsIdentify the mismatch in the following
-
Question 33 of 52
33. Question
4 pointsAstigmatism is corrected using
-
Question 34 of 52
34. Question
4 pointsThe focal length of a normal eye-lens is about
-
Question 35 of 52
35. Question
4 pointsA normal eye is not able to see objects closer than 25 cm because
-
Question 36 of 52
36. Question
4 pointsThe image formed by an objective of a compound microscope is
-
Question 37 of 52
37. Question
4 pointsAn astronomical telescope has a large aperture to
-
Question 38 of 52
38. Question
4 pointsTo increase the angular magnification of a simple microscope, one should increase
-
Question 39 of 52
39. Question
4 pointsIn which of the following the final image is erect ?
-
Question 40 of 52
40. Question
4 pointsResolving power of a telescope increases with
-
Question 41 of 52
41. Question
4 pointsAn experiment is performed to find the refractive index of glass using a travelling microscope. In this experimentdistances are measured by
-
Question 42 of 52
42. Question
4 pointsIf the focal length of objective lens is increased then magnifying power of :
-
Question 43 of 52
43. Question
4 pointsThe light gathering power of an astronomical telescope depends upon
-
Question 44 of 52
44. Question
4 pointsThe objective of a telescope must be of large diameter in order to
-
Question 45 of 52
45. Question
4 pointsWhich of the following statements about laws of reflection is/are correct?
I. The incident ray, the reflected ray and the normal all lie in the same plane.
II. Angle of incidence is equal to the angle of reflection.
III. After reflection, velocity, wavelength and frequency of light remains same but intensity decreases. -
Question 46 of 52
46. Question
4 pointsA convex mirror is used to form the image of an object. Then which of the following statements is/are true?
I. The image lies between the pole and the focusII. The image is diminished in size.
III. The image is real
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Question 47 of 52
47. Question
4 pointsThe graph between angle of deviation (G) and angle of incidence (i) for a triangular prism is represented by
-
Question 48 of 52
48. Question
4 pointsDirection: For given questions two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R).
Assertion: Critical angle is minimum for violet colour.
Reason: Because critical angle \(\begin{align}{\theta _c} = {\sin ^{ – 1}}\left( {\frac{1}{\mu }} \right)\end{align}\)and \(\begin{align}\mu \propto \frac{1}{\lambda }\end{align}\) -
Question 49 of 52
49. Question
4 pointsDirection: For given questions two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R).
Assertion: The focal length of an equiconvex lens of radius of curvature R made of material of refractive index µ = 1.5, is R
Reason: The focal length of the lens will be R/2. -
Question 50 of 52
50. Question
4 pointsDirection: For given questions two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R).
Assertion: If the rays are diverging after emerging from a lens; the lens must be concave.
Reason: The convex lens can give diverging rays. -
Question 51 of 52
51. Question
4 pointsDirection: For given questions two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R).
Assertion: A lens, whose radii of curvature are different, is forming the image of an object placed on its axis. If the lens is reversed, the position of the image will not change
Reason: The focal length of a lens is given by \(\begin{align}\frac{1}{f} = \left( {\mu – 1} \right)\left( {\frac{1}{{{R_1}}} – \frac{1}{{{R_2}}}} \right)\end{align}\) , and so focal length in both the cases is same. -
Question 52 of 52
52. Question
4 pointsDirection: For given questions two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R).
Assertion: The resolving power of a telescope is more if the diameter of the objective lens is more.
Reason: Objective lens of large diameter collects more light.
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Information
Subject: Physics
Class: XII
Duration: 1 hr.
Syllabus: Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter
- There are 60 total questions in this test
- Each question has 4 options out of which only one is correct.
- You will be awarded 4 points for each correct answer.
- Your Score & Rank will be shown after submitting the test.
- In this quiz you are going to check your conceptual knowledge.
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- Answered
- Review
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Question 1 of 60
1. Question
4 pointsPhotoelectric emmision occurs only when the incident light has more than a certain minimum
-
Question 2 of 60
2. Question
4 pointsWhich of the following when falls on a metal will emit photoelectrons ?
-
Question 3 of 60
3. Question
4 pointsThe wave nature of light was established by
(i) Maxwell’s equations (ii) Fraunhoffer’s lines
(iii) Hertz experiment (iv) Einstein’s theory -
Question 4 of 60
4. Question
4 pointsThe work-function of a metal is
-
Question 5 of 60
5. Question
4 pointsThe work function of a metal is independent of
(i) nature of the surface of the metal
(ii) dimensions of the metal
(iii) properties of the metal
(iv) abundance of the metal -
Question 6 of 60
6. Question
4 pointsWhich of the following metals is not sensitive to visible light?
-
Question 7 of 60
7. Question
4 pointsThe photoelectric current does not depend upon the
(i) frequency of incident light
(ii) work function of the metal
(iii) stopping potential
(iv) intensity of incident light -
Question 8 of 60
8. Question
4 pointsThe stopping potential is directly related to
-
Question 9 of 60
9. Question
4 pointsThe wave theory of light does not explain
-
Question 10 of 60
10. Question
4 pointsPhotoelectric effect can be explained by
-
Question 11 of 60
11. Question
4 pointsPhotons are deflected by
-
Question 12 of 60
12. Question
4 pointsIn a photon-particle collision, the quantity that does not remain conserved is
-
Question 13 of 60
13. Question
4 pointsOf the following properties, the photon does not possess
-
Question 14 of 60
14. Question
4 pointsIt is essential to consider light as a stream of photons to explain
-
Question 15 of 60
15. Question
4 pointsThe momentum of a photon of wavelength λ is
-
Question 16 of 60
16. Question
4 pointsThe photoelectrons emitted from a metal surface are such that their velocity
-
Question 17 of 60
17. Question
4 pointsPhotoelectric effect shows
-
Question 18 of 60
18. Question
4 pointsLight of a particular frequency Q is incident on a metal surface. When the intensity of incident radiation is increased, the photoelectric current
-
Question 19 of 60
19. Question
4 pointsThe photoelectric effect is based on the law of conservation of
-
Question 20 of 60
20. Question
4 pointsWhen light is incident on a metal surface the maximum kinetic energy of emitted electrons
-
Question 21 of 60
21. Question
4 pointsEinstein’s photoelectric equation states that
\( \displaystyle h\nu ={{W}_{0}}+{{E}_{k}}\)
In this equatin, \( \displaystyle {{E}_{k}}\) refers to the -
Question 22 of 60
22. Question
4 pointsThe minimum energy required to eject an electron, from the metal surface is called
-
Question 23 of 60
23. Question
4 pointsThe work function for photoelectric effect
-
Question 24 of 60
24. Question
4 pointsA photon will have less energy, if its
-
Question 25 of 60
25. Question
4 pointsThe energy of photon of wavelength λ is
-
Question 26 of 60
26. Question
4 pointsA steel ball of mass m is moving with a kinetic energy K. The de-Broglie wavelength associated with the ball is
-
Question 27 of 60
27. Question
4 pointsElectron volt (eV) is the unit of
-
Question 28 of 60
28. Question
4 pointsThe de Broglie wavelength corresponding to a particle of mass ‘m’ and charge ‘q’ accelerated from rest to a potential V is given by
-
Question 29 of 60
29. Question
4 pointsFor an electron accelerated from rest through a potential V, the de Broglie wavelength associated will be
-
Question 30 of 60
30. Question
4 pointsAccording to Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle, it is true that
-
Question 31 of 60
31. Question
4 pointsThe graph of \( \displaystyle {{V}_{0}}\) (stopping potential) vs \( \displaystyle \nu \) (frequency) is
-
Question 32 of 60
32. Question
4 pointsFrom the graph it is clear that
I. the stopping potential varies linearly with the frequency of incident radiation for the given metal.
II. the work function of metal A is greater than that for metal B.
III. the stopping potential is zero below the minimum cut off frequency.
IV. the stopping potential is independent of the intensity of incident radiation. -
Question 33 of 60
33. Question
4 pointsVariation of stopping potential \(\displaystyle {{V}_{0}}\) with frequency ν of incident radiation for photosensitive materials A and B are shown
From graph we conclude that
I. maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons varies linearly with frequency.
II. a frequency lower than a certain frequency photoemission is not possible.
III. density of metal A is more than that of B.
IV. metal A contains more electrons than that of B. -
Question 34 of 60
34. Question
4 pointsWhich of the following statements are true?
I. In the interaction with matter, radiation behaves as if it is made up of particle called photons.
II. Each photon has energy \( \displaystyle E=h\nu \) and momentum \( \displaystyle P=\frac{{h\nu }}{c}\)
III. photons are electrically neutral and are not deflected by electric and magnetic field.
IV. In a photon particle collision, photon number is conserved. -
Question 35 of 60
35. Question
4 pointsMatch the Columns I and II:
Column I
Column II
(A) Einstein Photoelectric equation (1) \( \displaystyle \lambda =\frac{h}{p}\) (B) de-Broglie relation (2) \( \displaystyle {{K}_{{\max }}}=h\nu -{{\phi }_{0}}\) (C) Threshold frequency (3) \( \displaystyle \Delta x\Delta p\simeq h\) (D) Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle (4) \( \displaystyle \nu =\frac{{{{\phi }_{0}}}}{h}\) -
Question 36 of 60
36. Question
4 pointsMatch the quantities given in column I with their definitions in column II.
Column I Column II
(A) Photocurrent (1) The minimum energy required by electron to escape from the metal surface
(B) Saturation (2) The minimum retarding current potential
(C) Stopping (3) The number of photoelectric potential emitted per second
(D) Work function (4) The maximum number of photoelectrons emitted per second -
Question 37 of 60
37. Question
4 points -
Question 38 of 60
38. Question
4 points -
Question 39 of 60
39. Question
4 pointsWhich one of the following graphs represents the variation of maximum kinetic energy (\( \displaystyle {{E}_{k}}\) ) of the emitted electrons with frequency \( \displaystyle \nu \) in photoelectric effect correctly ?
-
Question 40 of 60
40. Question
4 pointsFor a given photosensitive material and frequency (> threshold frequency) of incident radiation, the
photoelectric current varies with the intensity of incident light as -
Question 41 of 60
41. Question
4 pointsThe anode voltage of a photocell is kept fixed. The wavelength λ of the light falling on the cathode is gradually changed. The plate current I of the photocell varies as follows
-
Question 42 of 60
42. Question
4 pointsIn a photoelectric experiment the stopping potential for the incident light of wavelength 4000Å is 2 volt. If the wavelength be changed to 3000 Å, the stopping potential will be
-
Question 43 of 60
43. Question
4 points4eV is the energy of incident photon and the work function is 2eV. The stopping potential will be
-
Question 44 of 60
44. Question
4 pointsThe photoelectric work function for a metal surface is 4.125 eV. The cut-off wavelength for this surface is
-
Question 45 of 60
45. Question
4 pointsA photocell is illuminated by a small bright source placed 1 m away. When the same source of light is placed 2 m away, the number of electrons emitted by photocathode are reduced by a factor of
-
Question 46 of 60
46. Question
4 pointsAll electrons ejected from a surface by incident light of wavelength 200nm can be stopped before travelling 1m in the direction of uniform electric field of 4N/C. The work function of the surface is
-
Question 47 of 60
47. Question
4 pointsThe maximum velocity of an electron emitted by light of wavelength \( \displaystyle \lambda \) incident on the surface of a metal of workfunction \( \displaystyle \phi \) is
-
Question 48 of 60
48. Question
4 pointsIf \(\displaystyle {{E}_{1}},\text{ }{{E}_{2}},\text{ }{{E}_{3}}\) are the respective kinetic energies of an electron, an alpha-particle and a proton, each having the same de-Broglie wavelength, then
-
Question 49 of 60
49. Question
4 pointsIn photoelectric emission process from a metal of work function 1.8 eV, the kinetic energy of most energetic electrons is 0.5 eV. The corresponding stopping potential is
-
Question 50 of 60
50. Question
4 pointsThe threshold frequency for a photosensitive metal is 3.3 × 1014 Hz. If light of frequency 8.2 × 1014 Hz is incident on this metal, the cut-off voltage for the photoelectric emission is nearly
-
Question 51 of 60
51. Question
4 pointsTwo radiations of photons energies 1 eV and 2.5 eV, successively illuminate a photosensitive metallic surface of work function 0.5 eV. The ratio of the maximum speeds of the emitted electrons is
-
Question 52 of 60
52. Question
4 pointsMonochromatic radiation emitted when electron on hydrogen atom jumps from first excited to the ground state irradiates a photosensitive material. The stopping potential is measured to be 3.57 V. The threshold frequency of the materials is
-
Question 53 of 60
53. Question
4 pointsFor photoelectric emission from certain metal the cut-off frequency is Q. If radiation of frequency 2Q impinges on the metal plate, the maximum possible velocity of the emitted electron will be (m is the electron mass)
-
Question 54 of 60
54. Question
4 pointsThe work functions of Silver and Sodium are 4.6 and 2.3 eV, respectively. The ratio of the slope of the stopping potential versus frequency plot for Silver to that of Sodium is
-
Question 55 of 60
55. Question
4 pointsIf the momentum of electron is changed by P, then the de Broglie wavelength associated with it changes by 0.5%. The initial momentum of electron will be
-
Question 56 of 60
56. Question
4 pointsA proton and D-particle are accelerated through the same potential difference. The ratio of their de-Broglie wavelength will be
-
Question 57 of 60
57. Question
4 pointshe ratio of de-Broglie wavelengths of proton and α -particle having same kinetic energy is
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Question 58 of 60
58. Question
4 pointsThe wavelength of an electron \( \displaystyle {{\lambda }_{e}}\) and \(\displaystyle {{\lambda }_{p}}\) of a photon are of same energy E are related by
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Question 59 of 60
59. Question
4 pointsA proton has kinetic energy E = 100 keV which is equal to that of a photon. The wavelength of photon is \( \displaystyle {{\lambda }_{1}}\) and that of proton is \( \displaystyle {{\lambda }_{2}}\). The ratio of \( \displaystyle \frac{{{{\lambda }_{1}}}}{{{{\lambda }_{2}}}}\) is proportional to
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Question 60 of 60
60. Question
4 pointsDIRECTION: Read the two statements Assertion (A) and Reason (R) carefully to mark the correct option out of the options given below:
Assertion: Though light of a single frequency (monochromatic) is incident on a metal, the energies of emitted photoelectrons are different.
Reason: The energy of electrons emitted from inside the metal surface, is lost in collision with the other atoms in the metal.
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Information
Subject: Physics
Syllabus: Atom
Duration: 1 hr 16 min.
Read the following instruction carefully.
- There are 76 total questions in this test
- Each question has 4 options out of which only one is correct.
- You will be awarded 4 points for each correct answer.
- Your Score & Rank will be shown after submitting the test.
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- Review
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Question 1 of 76
1. Question
0 pointsThe first model of atom was proposed by
-
Question 2 of 76
2. Question
0 pointsThe empirical atom model was given by
-
Question 3 of 76
3. Question
0 pointsIn an atom, the two electrons move round the nucleus in circular orbits of radii R and 4R. The ratio of the time taken by them to complete one revolution is
-
Question 4 of 76
4. Question
0 pointsIf 13.6 eV energy is required to ionize the hydrogen atom then the energy required to remove an electron from n = 2 is
-
Question 5 of 76
5. Question
0 pointsWhich of the following statements is correct in case of Thomson’s atomic model?
-
Question 6 of 76
6. Question
0 pointsWhich one did Rutherford consider to be supported by the results of experiments in which alpha-particles were scattered by gold foil?
-
Question 7 of 76
7. Question
0 pointsAccording to the Rutherford’s atomic model, the electrons inside the atom are
-
Question 8 of 76
8. Question
0 pointsAccording to classical theory, the circular path of an electron in Rutherford atom model is
-
Question 9 of 76
9. Question
0 pointsRutherford’s \(\alpha \)particle experiment showed that the atoms have
-
Question 10 of 76
10. Question
0 pointsElectrons in the atom are held to the nucleus by
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Question 11 of 76
11. Question
0 pointsThe Rutherford \(\alpha \)-particle experiment shows that most of the \(\alpha \)-particles pass through almost unscattered while some are scattered through large angles. What information does it give about the structure of the atom?
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Question 12 of 76
12. Question
0 pointsIn Rutherford’s \(\alpha \) -particle scattering experiment, what will be correct angle for \(\alpha \) scattering for an impact parameter b = 0 ?
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Question 13 of 76
13. Question
0 pointsIn the ground state in …A… electrons are in stable equilibrium while in …B… electrons always experiences a net force. Here, A and B refer to
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Question 14 of 76
14. Question
0 pointsThe significant result deduced from the Rutherford's scattering experiment is that
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Question 15 of 76
15. Question
0 pointsElectrons in the atom are held to the nucleus by
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Question 16 of 76
16. Question
0 pointsRutherford’s atomic model was unstable because
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Question 17 of 76
17. Question
0 pointsThe electrons of Rutherford’s model would be expected tolose energy because, they
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Question 18 of 76
18. Question
0 pointsAs one considers orbits with higher values of n in a hydrogen atom, the electric potential energy of the atom
-
Question 19 of 76
19. Question
0 pointsWhich of the following parameters is the same for all hydrogen-like atoms and ions in their ground states?
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Question 20 of 76
20. Question
0 pointsThe angular speed of the electron in the nth orbit of Bohr hydrogen atom is
-
Question 21 of 76
21. Question
0 pointsAccording to Bohr’s model of hydrogen atom
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Question 22 of 76
22. Question
0 pointsAs the quantum number increases, the difference of energy between consecutive energy levels
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Question 23 of 76
23. Question
0 pointsWhich of the following in a hydrogen atom is independent of the principal quantum number n? (The symbols have their usual meanings).
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Question 24 of 76
24. Question
0 pointsAccording to the Bohr theory of H-atom, the speed of the electron, its energy and the radius of its orbit varies with the principal quantum number n, respectively, as
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Question 25 of 76
25. Question
0 pointsIn terms of Bohr radius \({r_0}\), the radius of the second Bohr orbit of a hydrogen atom is given by
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Question 26 of 76
26. Question
0 pointsWhen hydrogen atom is in its first excited level, it’s radius is
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Question 27 of 76
27. Question
0 pointsThe angular momentum of the electron in hydrogen atom in the ground state is
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Question 28 of 76
28. Question
0 pointsWhen an atomic gas or vapour is excited at low pressure, by passing an electric current through it then
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Question 29 of 76
29. Question
0 pointsThe first spectral series was discovered by
-
Question 30 of 76
30. Question
0 pointsWhen an electron jumps from the fourth orbit to the second orbit, one gets the
-
Question 31 of 76
31. Question
0 pointsThe Balmer series for the H-atom can be observed
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Question 32 of 76
32. Question
0 pointsIn Balmer series of emission spectrum of hydrogen, first four lines with different wavelength \({H_\alpha },{H_\beta },{H_\gamma }{\rm{ and }}{H_\delta }\)are obtained. Which line has maximum frequency out of these?
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Question 33 of 76
33. Question
0 pointsIn which of the following series, does the 121.5 nm line of the spectrum of the hydrogen atom lie ?
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Question 34 of 76
34. Question
0 pointsWhich of the following series in the spectrum of hydrogen atom lies in the visible region of the electromagnetic spectrum?
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Question 35 of 76
35. Question
0 pointsThe shortest wavelength in Balmer’s series for Hydrogen atom is …A… and this is obtained by substituting …B … in Balmer’s formula. Here, A and B refer to
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Question 36 of 76
36. Question
0 pointsAs an electron makes a transition from an excited state to the ground state of a hydrogen – like atom/ion
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Question 37 of 76
37. Question
0 pointsWhich of the following series in the spectrum of hydrogen atom lies in the visible region of the electromagnetic spectrum?
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Question 38 of 76
38. Question
0 pointsIn a hydrogen atom, which of the following electronic transitions would involve the maximum energy change
-
Question 39 of 76
39. Question
0 pointsHydrogen atom excites energy level from fundamental state to n = 3. Number of spectral lines according to Bohr, is
-
Question 40 of 76
40. Question
0 pointsThe transition from the state n = 4 to n = 3 in a hydrogen like atom results in ultraviolet radiation. Infrared radiation will be obtained in the transition from
-
Question 41 of 76
41. Question
0 pointsFor a given value of n, the number of electrons in an orbit is
-
Question 42 of 76
42. Question
0 pointsBohr’s atom model is the modification of Rutherford’s atom model by the application of
-
Question 43 of 76
43. Question
0 pointsIn Bohr’s model electrons are revolving in a circular orbits around the nucleus called as
-
Question 44 of 76
44. Question
0 pointsAccording to Bohr’s theory of H atom, an electron can revolve around a proton indefinitely, if its path is
-
Question 45 of 76
45. Question
0 pointsAccording to Bohr the difference between the energies of the electron in the two orbits is equal to
-
Question 46 of 76
46. Question
0 pointsThe angular momentum of electrons in an atom produces
-
Question 47 of 76
47. Question
0 pointsAccording to Planck’s quantum theory any electromagnetic radiation is
-
Question 48 of 76
48. Question
0 pointsThe radius of ‘n’th Bohr’s orbit of H atom is given by
-
Question 49 of 76
49. Question
0 pointsThe linear speed of an electron, in Bohr’s orbit is given by
-
Question 50 of 76
50. Question
0 pointsAngular speed of an electron in a Bohr’s orbit is given by
-
Question 51 of 76
51. Question
0 pointsPeriod of revolution of electron in the nth Bohr’s orbit is given by
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Question 52 of 76
52. Question
0 pointsFrequency of revolution of electron in the nth Bohr’s orbit is given by
-
Question 53 of 76
53. Question
0 pointsThe total energy of the electron in the Bohr’s orbit is given by
-
Question 54 of 76
54. Question
0 pointsIf ‘r’ is the radius of the lowest orbit of Bohr’s model of H-atom, then the radius of \({n^{th}}\) orbit is
-
Question 55 of 76
55. Question
0 pointsThe ratio of radii of the first three Bohr orbits is
-
Question 56 of 76
56. Question
0 pointsThe speed of an electron, in the orbit of a H-atom, in the ground state is
-
Question 57 of 76
57. Question
0 pointsThe speed of electron in first Bohr orbit is c/137. The speed of electron in second Bohr orbit will be
-
Question 58 of 76
58. Question
0 pointsIf the frequency of revolution of electron in an orbit in H atom is n then the equivalent current is
-
Question 59 of 76
59. Question
0 pointsIn Bohr model of hydrogen atom, let P.E. represents potential energy and T.E. represents the total energy. In going to a higher level.
-
Question 60 of 76
60. Question
0 pointsThe wavelength of a spectral line emitted due to the transition of electron from outer stationary orbit to inner stationary orbit is given by
-
Question 61 of 76
61. Question
0 pointsAn electron makes a transition from outer orbit (n = 4) to the inner orbit (p = 2) of a hydrogen atom. The wave number of the emitted radiations is
-
Question 62 of 76
62. Question
0 pointsRydberg constant R is equal to
-
Question 63 of 76
63. Question
0 pointsWhich of the following are in the ascending order of wavelength?
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Question 64 of 76
64. Question
0 pointsRydberg’s constant is
-
Question 65 of 76
65. Question
0 pointsThe Lyman transitions involve
-
Question 66 of 76
66. Question
0 pointsThe series limit wavelength of the Balmer series for the hydrogen atom is
-
Question 67 of 76
67. Question
0 pointsIf R is the Rydberg’s constant, the energy of an electron in the ground state H atom is
-
Question 68 of 76
68. Question
0 pointsBalmer series lies in which spectrum?
-
Question 69 of 76
69. Question
0 pointsMaximum energy evolved during which of the following transition?
-
Question 70 of 76
70. Question
0 pointsThe observations of Geiger–Marsden experiment are
I. many of α particles pass straight through the gold foil.
II. only about 0.14% of α-particles scatter by more than 1°
III. about 1 in 8000 of α-particles is deflected more than 90°.
IV. very few particles are reflected back. -
Question 71 of 76
71. Question
0 pointsTrajectory of an \(\alpha \)–particle in Geiger–Marsden experiment is explained by using
I. Coulomb’s law
II. Newton’s law
III. Gauss’s law
IV. Faraday’s law. -
Question 72 of 76
72. Question
0 pointsBohr’s atomic model assume that
I. the nucleus is of infinite mass and is at rest.
II. electrons in a quantised orbit will not radiate the energy.
III. mass of electrons remains constant during revolution.
IV. emission or absorption of energy results to transition of electron from one orbit to another.
Choose the correct option from the codes given below. -
Question 73 of 76
73. Question
0 points -
Question 74 of 76
74. Question
0 pointsDirection: For given questions two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R).
Assertion: According to classical theory the proposed path of an electron in Rutherford atom model will be parabolic.
Reason: According to electromagnetic theory an accelerated particle continuously emits radiation. -
Question 75 of 76
75. Question
0 pointsDirection: For given questions two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R).
Assertion: Hydrogen atom consists of only one electronbut its emission spectrum has many lines.
Reason: Only Lyman series is found in the absorption spectrum of hydrogen atom whereas in the emission spectrum, all the series are found. -
Question 76 of 76
76. Question
0 pointsDirection: For given questions two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R).
Assertion: In Lyman series, the ratio of minimum and maximum wavelength is 3/4
Reason: Lyman series constitute spectral lines corresponding to transition from higher energy to ground state of hydrogen atom.
0 of 56 questions completed
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Information
Subject: Physics
Syllabus: Semiconductor Electronics
Duration: 56 Min.
Read the following instruction carefully.
- There are 56 total questions in this test
- Each question has 4 options out of which only one is correct.
- You will be awarded 4 points for each correct answer.
- Your Score & Rank will be shown after submitting the test.
- In this quiz you are going to check your conceptual knowledge.
You have already completed the Test before. Hence you can not start it again.
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- 56
- Answered
- Review
-
Question 1 of 56
1. Question
4 points -
Question 2 of 56
2. Question
4 pointsWhich of the following statements is/are correct ?
I. Pure Si doped with trivalent impurities gives a p-type semiconductor
II. Majority carriers in a n-type semiconductor are holes
III. Minority carriers in a p-type semiconductor are electrons
IV. The resistance of intrinsic semiconductor decreases with increase of temperature -
Question 3 of 56
3. Question
4 pointsIn a n-type semiconductor, which of the following statements are incorrect?
I. Electrons are minority carriers and pentavalent atoms are dopants.
II. Holes are minority carriers and pentavalent atoms are dopants.
III. Holes are majority carriers and trivalent atoms are dopants.
IV Electrons are majority carriers and trivalent atoms are dopants. -
Question 4 of 56
4. Question
4 pointsIn a solid-state semiconductor, the number of mobile charge carriers can be changed by
I. using light for excitation.
II. using heat for excitation.
III. using sound for excitation.
IV. using applied voltage for excitation. -
Question 5 of 56
5. Question
4 pointsDue to diffusion of electrons from n to p-side
I. electron hole combination across p-n junction occurs.
II. an ionised acceptor is left in the p-region.
III. an ionised donor is left in the n-region.
IV. electrons of n-sdie comes to p-side and electron-hole combination takes place in p-side
Select the correct option from the following. -
Question 6 of 56
6. Question
4 pointsDirection: For given questions two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A)and the other labelled Reason (R).
Assertion: A pure semiconductor has negative temperaturecoefficient of resistance.
Reason: In a semiconductor on raising the temperature, more charge carriers are released, conductance increases and resistance decreases -
Question 7 of 56
7. Question
4 pointsDirection: For given questions two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R).
Assertion: If the temperature of a semiconductor is increased then its resistance decreases.
Reason: The energy gap between conduction band and valence band is very small. -
Question 8 of 56
8. Question
4 pointsDirection: For given questions two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R).
Assertion: When two semi conductor of p and n type are brought in contact, they form p-n junction which act like a rectifier.
Reason: A rectifier is used to convent alternating current into direct current. -
Question 9 of 56
9. Question
4 pointsDirection: For given questions two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R).
Assertion: The drift current in a p-n junction is from the n-side to the p-side.
Reason: It is due to free electrons only. -
Question 10 of 56
10. Question
4 pointsIn a semiconductor
-
Question 11 of 56
11. Question
4 pointsLet \({n_h}\) and \({n_e}\) be the number of holes and conduction electrons in an extrinsic semiconductor. Then
-
Question 12 of 56
12. Question
4 pointsA p-type semiconductor is
-
Question 13 of 56
13. Question
4 pointsElectric conduction in a semiconductor takes place due to
-
Question 14 of 56
14. Question
4 pointsThe impurity atoms with which pure silicon may be doped to make it a p-type semiconductor are those of
-
Question 15 of 56
15. Question
4 pointsThe electrical conductivity of pure germanium can be increased by
-
Question 16 of 56
16. Question
4 pointsThe resistivity of a semiconductor at room temperature is in between
-
Question 17 of 56
17. Question
4 pointsNumber of electrons in the valence shell of a pure semiconductor is
-
Question 18 of 56
18. Question
4 pointsIn a semiconductor, the forbidden energy gap between the valence band and the conduction band is of the order is
-
Question 19 of 56
19. Question
4 pointsThe forbidden energy gap for germanium crystal at 0 K is
-
Question 20 of 56
20. Question
4 pointsIn an insulator, the forbidden energy gap between the valence band and conduction band is of the order of
-
Question 21 of 56
21. Question
4 pointsWhat is the resistivity of a pure semiconductor at absolute zero?
-
Question 22 of 56
22. Question
4 pointsTemperature coefficient of resistance of semiconductor is
-
Question 23 of 56
23. Question
4 pointsIn a p-type semiconductor, the acceptor valence band is
-
Question 24 of 56
24. Question
4 pointsIn an n-type semiconductor, donor valence band is
-
Question 25 of 56
25. Question
4 pointsThe mobility of free electrons is greater than that of free holes because
-
Question 26 of 56
26. Question
4 pointsThe relation between number of free electrons (n) in a semiconductor and temperature (T) is given by
-
Question 27 of 56
27. Question
4 pointsIn semiconductors, at room temperature
-
Question 28 of 56
28. Question
4 pointsAt absolute zero, Si acts as
-
Question 29 of 56
29. Question
4 pointsOne serious drawback of semi-conductor devices is
-
Question 30 of 56
30. Question
4 pointsWhen an impurity is doped into an intrinsic semiconductor, the conductivity of the semiconductor
-
Question 31 of 56
31. Question
4 pointsAn electric field is applied to a semiconductor. Let the number of charge carriers be n and the average drift speed be v. If the temperature is increased
-
Question 32 of 56
32. Question
4 pointsIf a small amount of antimony is added to germanium crystal
-
Question 33 of 56
33. Question
4 pointsBy increasing the temperature, the specific resistance of a conductor and a semiconductor
-
Question 34 of 56
34. Question
4 pointsA strip of copper and another of germanium are cooled from room temperature to 80K. The resistance of
-
Question 35 of 56
35. Question
4 pointsCarbon, Silicon and Germanium atoms have four valence electrons each. Their valence and conduction bands are separated by energy band gaps represented by\({\left( {{E_g}} \right)_C}\), \({\left( {{E_g}} \right)_{Si}}\)and \({\left( {{E_g}} \right)_{Ge}}\)respectively. Which one of the following relationship is true in their case?
-
Question 36 of 56
36. Question
4 pointsA semiconductor device is connected in a series circuit with a battery and a resistance. A current is found to pass through the circuit. If the polarity of the battery is reversed, the current drops to almost zero. The device may be a/an
-
Question 37 of 56
37. Question
4 pointsIf the two ends of a p-n junction are joined by a wire
-
Question 38 of 56
38. Question
4 pointsThe drift current in a p-n junction is from the
-
Question 39 of 56
39. Question
4 pointsThe diffusion current in a p-n junction is from the
-
Question 40 of 56
40. Question
4 pointsDiffusion current in a p-n junction is greater than the drift current in magnitude
-
Question 41 of 56
41. Question
4 pointsForward biasing is that in which applied voltage
-
Question 42 of 56
42. Question
4 pointsIn V-I characteristic of a p-n junction, reverse biasing results in
-
Question 43 of 56
43. Question
4 pointsIn reverse biasing
-
Question 44 of 56
44. Question
4 pointsIn a semiconductor diode, the barrier potential offers opposition to
-
Question 45 of 56
45. Question
4 pointsIn a P -N junction
-
Question 46 of 56
46. Question
4 pointsBarrier potential of a P-N junction diode does not depend on
-
Question 47 of 56
47. Question
4 pointsReverse bias applied to a junction diode
-
Question 48 of 56
48. Question
4 pointsIn forward biasing of the p–n junction
-
Question 49 of 56
49. Question
4 pointsWhen p-n junction diode is forward biased then
-
Question 50 of 56
50. Question
4 pointsThe cause of the potential barrier in a p-n junction diode is
-
Question 51 of 56
51. Question
4 pointsThe ratio of forward biased to reverse biased resistance for p-n junction diode is
-
Question 52 of 56
52. Question
4 pointsIn the middle of the depletion layer of a reverse- biased p-n junction, the
-
Question 53 of 56
53. Question
4 pointsBridge type rectifier uses
-
Question 54 of 56
54. Question
4 pointsThe average value of output direct current in a half wave rectifier is
-
Question 55 of 56
55. Question
4 pointsThe average value of output direct current in a full wave rectifier is
-
Question 56 of 56
56. Question
4 pointsIn a half wave rectifier, the r.m.s. value of the a.c. component of the wave is
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Information
Subject: Physics
Syllabus: Nuclei
Duration: 40 Min.
Read the following instruction carefully.
- There are 40 total questions in this test
- Each question has 4 options out of which only one is correct.
- You will be awarded 4 points for each correct answer.
- Your Score & Rank will be shown after submitting the test.
- In this quiz you are going to check your conceptual knowledge.
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- Review
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Question 1 of 40
1. Question
4 pointsChadwick was awarded the 1935 nobel prize in physics for his discovery of the
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Question 2 of 40
2. Question
4 pointsThe element gold has
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Question 3 of 40
3. Question
4 pointsThe nuclear radius is of the order of
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Question 4 of 40
4. Question
4 pointsParticles which can be added to the nucleus of an atom without changing its chemical properties are called
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Question 5 of 40
5. Question
4 pointsThe radius of a nucleus is
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Question 6 of 40
6. Question
4 pointsNucleus of an atom whose atomic mass is 24 consists of
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Question 7 of 40
7. Question
4 pointsThe electrons cannot exist inside the nucleus because
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Question 8 of 40
8. Question
4 pointsA nuclei having same number of neutron but different number of protons / atomic number are called
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Question 9 of 40
9. Question
4 pointsWhich one of the following has the identical property for isotopes?
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Question 10 of 40
10. Question
4 pointsThe number of protons in an atom of atomic number Z and mass number A is
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Question 11 of 40
11. Question
4 pointsWhen the number of nucleons in nuclei increases, the binding energy per nucleon
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Question 12 of 40
12. Question
4 points\({M_p}\)denotes the mass of a proton and \({M_n}\) that of a neutron. A given nucleus, of binding energy B, contains Z protons and N neutrons. The mass M(N, Z) of the nucleus is given by (c is the velocity of light)
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Question 13 of 40
13. Question
4 pointsMass energy equation was propounded by
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Question 14 of 40
14. Question
4 pointsThe mass of an atomic nucleus is less than the sum of the masses of its constituents. This mass defect is converted into
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Question 15 of 40
15. Question
4 pointsWhich of the following statement is not true regarding Einstein’s mass energy relation?
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Question 16 of 40
16. Question
4 pointsThe curve of binding energy per nucleon as a function ofatomic mass number has a sharp peak for helium nucleus. This implies that helium
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Question 17 of 40
17. Question
4 pointsNuclear forces are
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Question 18 of 40
18. Question
4 pointsNuclear forces exists between
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Question 19 of 40
19. Question
4 pointsThe antiparticle of electron is
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Question 20 of 40
20. Question
4 pointsRadioactivity is
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Question 21 of 40
21. Question
4 pointsArtificial radioactivity was discovered by
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Question 22 of 40
22. Question
4 pointsRadioactive samples are stored in lead boxes because it is
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Question 23 of 40
23. Question
4 pointsFusion reaction occurs at temperatures of the order of
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Question 24 of 40
24. Question
4 pointsControl rods used in nuclear reactors are made of
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Question 25 of 40
25. Question
4 pointsBoron rods in a nuclear reactor are used to
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Question 26 of 40
26. Question
4 pointsA moderator is used in nuclear reactors in order to
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Question 27 of 40
27. Question
4 pointsFusion reactions take place at high temperature because
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Question 28 of 40
28. Question
4 pointsFor a nuclear fusion process, suitable nuclei are
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Question 29 of 40
29. Question
4 pointsConsider the following statements and select the correct statement(s).
I. The relative abundance of different isotopes differs from element to element.
II. Atomic species of the same element differing in mass are called isotopes.
III. Hydrogen has two isotopes. -
Question 30 of 40
30. Question
4 pointsWhich of the following statements are correct?
I. Atoms of isotopes have same electronic structure.
II. Atoms of isotopes occupies same place in periodic table.
III. Atoms of isotopes have same number of protons.
IV. Atoms of isotopes have same number of neutrons. -
Question 31 of 40
31. Question
4 pointsWhich of the following statements are correct ?
I. Nuclear density is a constant for all matter.
II. Nuclear density is around \(2.3 \times {10^{17}}kg/{m^3}\).
III. Nuclear density is very large compared to ordinary matter.
IV. Mass of ordinary matter is mainly due to nucleus. -
Question 32 of 40
32. Question
4 pointsFor binding energy per nucleon versus mass number curve, which of the following are correct ?
I. Binding energy per nucleon \({E_{bn}}\) is independent of mass number range 30 < A < 170.
II. Binding energy is lower for both light nuclei (A < 30) and heavy nuclei (A < 170).
III. Binding energy is maximum of about 8.75 MeV for A= 56.
IV. In region 0 < A < 80, binding energy increases with mass number. -
Question 33 of 40
33. Question
4 pointsIn one half-life time duration
I. activity of a sample reduced to half of its initial value.
II. total number of nuclei present are reduced to half of its initial value.
III. number of radio active nuclei present is reduced to half of its initial value.
IV. mass of sample is reduced to half of its initial value.
Out of these, correct statements are -
Question 34 of 40
34. Question
4 pointsAt a specific instant emission of radioactive compound is deflected in a magnetic field. The compound can emit
I electrons II protons
III \(H{e^{2 + }}\) IV neutronsThe emission at instant can be
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Question 35 of 40
35. Question
4 pointsThere is a plot of binding energy per nucleon \({E_b}\), against the nuclear mass M; A, B, C, D, E, F correspond to different nuclei.
Consider four reactions
(i) \(A + B \to C + \varepsilon \) (ii) \(C \to A + B + \varepsilon \)
(iii) \(D + E \to F + \varepsilon \) (iv) \(F \to D + E + \varepsilon \)
where \(\varepsilon \) is the energy released. In which reactions is \(\varepsilon \) positive? -
Question 36 of 40
36. Question
4 points -
Question 37 of 40
37. Question
4 points -
Question 38 of 40
38. Question
4 pointsDirection: For given questions two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R).
Assertion: The binding energy per nucleon, for nuclei with atomic mass number A > 100, decrease with A.
Reason: The forces are weak for heavier nuclei. -
Question 39 of 40
39. Question
4 pointsDirection: For given questions two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R).
Assertion: Radioactivity of \({10^8}\) undecayed radioactive nuclei of half life of 50 days is equal to that of \(1.2 \times {10^8}\)number of undecayed nuclei of some other material with half life of 60 days.
Reason: Radioactivity is proportional to half-life. -
Question 40 of 40
40. Question
4 pointsDirection: For given questions two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R).
Assertion: The ionising power of \(\beta \)-particle is less compared to \(\alpha \)particles but their penetrating power is more.
Reason: The mass of \(\beta \)-particle is less than the mass of \(\alpha \)-particle.
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Information
Subject: Physics
Syllabus: Wave Optics
Duration: 19 Min.
Read the following instruction carefully.
- There are 19 total questions in this test
- Each question has 4 options out of which only one is correct.
- You will be awarded 4 points for each correct answer.
- Your Score & Rank will be shown after submitting the test.
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- Review
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Question 1 of 19
1. Question
4 pointsIn an interference experiment the ratio of amplitudes of coherent waves is \(\begin{align}\displaystyle \frac{{{{a}_{1}}}}{{{{a}_{2}}}}=\frac{1}{3} \end{align}\). The ratio of maximum and minimum intensities of fringes will be :
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Question 2 of 19
2. Question
4 pointsTwo coherent sources produce waves of different intensities which interfere. After interference, the ratio of the maximum intensity to the minimum intensity is 16. The intensity of the waves are in the ratio:
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Question 3 of 19
3. Question
4 pointsOn a hot summer night, the refractive index of air is smallest near the ground and increases with height from the ground. When a light beam is directed horizontally, the Huygens' principle leads us to conclude that as it travels, the light beam:
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Question 4 of 19
4. Question
4 pointsTwo monochromatic light beams of intensity 16 and 9 units are interfering. The ratio of intensities of bright and dark parts of the resultant pattern is:
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Question 5 of 19
5. Question
4 points\(\begin{align}\displaystyle n \end{align}\) identical waves each of intensity I 0 interfere with each other. The ratio of maximum intensities if the interference is (i) coherent and (ii) incoherent is :
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Question 6 of 19
6. Question
4 pointsA ray of light of intensity I is incident on a parallel glass slab at point A as shown in diagram. It undergoes partial reflection and refraction. At each reflection, 25% of incident energy is reflected. The rays AB and A’B’ undergo interference. The ratio of \(\begin{align}\displaystyle {{I}_{{\max }}} \end{align}\)and \(\begin{align}\displaystyle {{I}_{{\min }}} \end{align}\) is :
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Question 7 of 19
7. Question
4 pointsTo demonstrate the phenomenon of interference, we require two sources which emit radiation
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Question 8 of 19
8. Question
4 pointsIn a Young’s double slit experiment, light of 500 nm is used to produce an interference pattern. When the distance between the slits is 0.05 mm, the angular width (in degree) of the fringes formed on the distance screen is close to :
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Question 9 of 19
9. Question
4 pointsIn a Young's double slit experiment, 16 fringes are observed in a certain segment of the screen when light of wavelength 700 nm is used. If the wavelength of light is changed to 400 nm, the number of fringes observed in the same segment of the screen would be :
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Question 10 of 19
10. Question
4 pointsIn a double-slit experiment, at a certain point on the screen the path difference between the two interfering waves is \(\begin{align}\displaystyle \frac{1}{8} \end{align}\) th of a wavelength. The ratio of the intensity of light at that point to that at the centre of a bright fringe is:
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Question 11 of 19
11. Question
4 pointsIn a Young’s double slit experiment, the separation between the slits is 0.15 mm. In the experiment, a source of light of wavelength 589 nm is used and the interference pattern is observed on a screen kept 1.5 m away. The separation between the successive bright fringes on the screen is:
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Question 12 of 19
12. Question
4 pointsIn a Young’s double slit experiment, the path difference, at a certain point on the screen, betwen two interfering waves is \(\begin{align}\displaystyle \frac{1}{8}th \end{align}\) of wavelength. The ratio of the intensity at this point to that at the centre of a bright fringe is close to:
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Question 13 of 19
13. Question
4 pointsIn a Young’s double slit experiment with slit separation 0.1 mm, one observes a bright fringe at angle \(\begin{align}\displaystyle \frac{1}{{40}} \end{align}\) rad by using light of wavelength \(\begin{align}\displaystyle {{\lambda }_{1}} \end{align}\) When the light of wavelength \(\begin{align}\displaystyle {{\lambda }_{2}} \end{align}\) is used a bright fringe is seen at the same angle in the same set up. Given that \(\begin{align}\displaystyle {{\lambda }_{1}} \end{align}\) and \(\begin{align}\displaystyle {{\lambda }_{2}} \end{align}\) are in visible range (380 nm to 740 nm), their values are:
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Question 14 of 19
14. Question
4 pointsIn a Young's double slit experiment, slits are separated by 0.5 mm, and the screen is placed 150 cm away. A beam of light consisting of two wavelengths, 650 nm and 520 nm, is used to obtain interference fringes on the screen. The least distance from the common central maximum to the point where the bright fringes due to both the wavelengths coincide is :
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Question 15 of 19
15. Question
4 pointsIn a Young’s double slit experiment the intensity at a point where the path difference is \(\begin{align}\displaystyle \frac{\lambda }{6} \end{align}\) (\(\begin{align}\displaystyle \lambda \end{align}\) being the wavelength of light used) is I. If \(\begin{align}\displaystyle {{I}_{0}} \end{align}\) denotes the maximum intensity, \(\begin{align}\displaystyle \frac{I}{{{{I}_{0}}}} \end{align}\) is equal to
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Question 16 of 19
16. Question
4 pointsA Young’s double slit experiment uses a monochromatic source. The shape of the interference fringes formed on a screen is
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Question 17 of 19
17. Question
4 pointsThe maximum number of possible interference maxima for slit-separation equal to twice the wavelength in Young’s double-slit experiment is
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Question 18 of 19
18. Question
4 pointsA single slit of width 0.1 mm is illuminated by a parallel beam of light of wavelength 6000 Å and diffraction bands are observed on a screen 0.5 m from the slit. The distance of the third dark band from the central bright band is :
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Question 19 of 19
19. Question
4 pointsA single slit of width b is illuminated by a coherent monochromatic light of wavelength \(\begin{align}\displaystyle \lambda \end{align}\). If the second and fourth minima in the diffraction pattern at a distance 1 m from the slit are at 3 cm and 6 cm respectively from the central maximum, what is the width of the central maximum? (i.e. distance between first minimum on either side of the central maximum)
0 of 28 questions completed
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Information
Subject: Physics
Syllabus: Alternating Current
Duration: 28 min.
Read the following instruction carefully.
- There are 28 total questions in this test
- Each question has 4 options out of which only one is correct.
- You will be awarded 4 points for each correct answer.
- Your Score & Rank will be shown after submitting the test.
- In this quiz you are going to check your conceptual knowledge.
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- Answered
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Question 1 of 28
1. Question
4 pointsAn alternating voltage \(\begin{align}\nu \left( t \right)=220\sin 100\omega t\end{align}\) is applied to a purely resistive load of 50Ω. The time taken for the current to rise from half of the peak value to the peak value is:
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Question 2 of 28
2. Question
4 pointsA small circular loop of wire of radius a is located at the centre of a much larger circular wire loop of radius b. The two loops are in the same plane. The outer loop of radius b carries an alternating current \(\begin{align}{\mathrm I}={{{\mathrm I}}_{o}}\cos \left( {\omega t} \right)\end{align}\) .The emf induced in the smaller inner loop is nearly :
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Question 3 of 28
3. Question
4 pointsA sinusoidal voltage V(t) = 100 sin (500t) is applied across a pure inductance of L = 0.02 H. The current through the coil is:
-
Question 4 of 28
4. Question
4 pointsIn an a.c. circuit the voltage applied is \(\begin{align}{\mathrm E}={{{\mathrm E}}_{o}}\sin \omega t\end{align}\) .. The resulting current in the circuit is \(\begin{align}\displaystyle {\mathrm I}={{{\mathrm I}}_{o}}\sin \left( {\omega t-\frac{\pi }{2}} \right)\end{align}\) . The power consumption in the circuit is given by
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Question 5 of 28
5. Question
4 pointsAlternating current can not be measured by D.C. ammeter because
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Question 6 of 28
6. Question
4 pointsAn AC circuit has \(\begin{align}R=100\Omega \end{align}\) , \(\begin{align}C=2\mu \end{align}\) F and \(\begin{align}L=80m{\mathrm H}\end{align}\) , connected in series. The quality factor of the circuit is :
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Question 7 of 28
7. Question
4 pointsA circuit connected to an ac source of emf \(\begin{align}e={{e}_{o}}\sin \left( {100t} \right)\end{align}\) with t in seconds, gives a phase difference of \(\begin{align}\frac{\pi }{4}\end{align}\) between the emf e and current i. Which of the following circuits will exhibit this ?
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Question 8 of 28
8. Question
4 pointsIn LC circuit the inductance \(\begin{align}\displaystyle L=40mH\end{align}\) and capacitance \(\begin{align}\displaystyle C=100\mu F\end{align}\) . If a voltage \(\begin{align}\displaystyle V\left( t \right)=10\sin \left( {314t} \right)\end{align}\) is applied to the circuit, the current in the circuit is given as:
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Question 9 of 28
9. Question
4 pointsFor an RLC circuit driven with voltage of amplitude \(\begin{align}\displaystyle {{\nu }_{m}}\end{align}\) and frequency \(\begin{align}\displaystyle {{\omega }_{o}}=\frac{1}{{\sqrt{{LC}}}}\end{align}\) the current exhibits resonance. The quality factor, \(\begin{align}\displaystyle Q\end{align}\) is given by:
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Question 10 of 28
10. Question
4 pointsA sinusoidal voltage of peak value \(\begin{align}\displaystyle 283V\end{align}\) and angular frequency \(\begin{align}\displaystyle 320\,\,\text{/s}\end{align}\) is applied to a series LCR circuit. Given that \(\begin{align}\displaystyle R=5\Omega \end{align}\) , \(\begin{align}\displaystyle L=25mH\end{align}\) and \(\begin{align}\displaystyle C=1000\mu F\end{align}\) . The total impedance, and phase difference between the voltage across the source and the current will respectively be :
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Question 11 of 28
11. Question
4 pointsWhen the rms voltages \(\begin{align}\displaystyle {{V}_{L}}\end{align}\) , \(\begin{align}\displaystyle {{V}_{c}}\end{align}\) and \(\begin{align}\displaystyle {{V}_{R}}\end{align}\) are measured respectively across the inductor \(\begin{align}\displaystyle L\end{align}\) , the capacitor \(\begin{align}\displaystyle C\end{align}\) and the resistor \(\begin{align}\displaystyle R\end{align}\) in a series LCR circuit connected to an AC source, it is found that the ratio \(\begin{align}\displaystyle {{V}_{L}}:{{V}_{C}}:{{V}_{R}}=1:2:3\end{align}\) . If the rms voltage of the AC sources is 100 V, the \(\begin{align}\displaystyle {{V}_{R}}\end{align}\) is close to:
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Question 12 of 28
12. Question
4 pointsA series LR circuit is connected to an ac source of frequency \(\begin{align}\displaystyle \omega \end{align}\) and the inductive reactance is equal to 2R. A capacitance of capacitive reactance equal to R is added in series with L and R. The ratio of the new power factor to the old one is :
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Question 13 of 28
13. Question
4 pointsWhen resonance is produced in a series LCR circuit, then which of the following is not correct ?
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Question 14 of 28
14. Question
4 pointsThe plot given below is of the average power delivered to an LRC circuit versus frequency. The quality factor of the circuit is :
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Question 15 of 28
15. Question
4 pointsIn a series L-C-R circuit, \(\begin{align}C={{10}^{{-11}}}Farad\end{align}\) , \(\begin{align}L={{10}^{{-5}}}Henry\end{align}\) and \(\begin{align}R=100Ohm\end{align}\) , when a constant D.C. voltage E is applied to the circuit, the capacitor acquires a charge \(\begin{align}{{10}^{{-9}}}C\end{align}\) . The D.C. source is replaced by a sinusoidal voltage source in which the peak voltage \(\begin{align}{{E}_{o}}\end{align}\) is equal to the constant D.C. voltage E. At resonance the peak value of the charge acquired by the capacitor will be :
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Question 16 of 28
16. Question
4 pointsIn a series resonant LCR circuit, the voltage across \(\begin{align}\displaystyle R\end{align}\) is \(\begin{align}\displaystyle 100volts\end{align}\) and \(\begin{align}\displaystyle R=1k\Omega \end{align}\) with \(\begin{align}\displaystyle C=2\mu F\end{align}\) . The resonant frequency \(\begin{align}\displaystyle \omega \end{align}\) is 200 rad/s. At resonance the voltage across \(\begin{align}\displaystyle L\end{align}\) is
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Question 17 of 28
17. Question
4 pointsIn an AC generator, a coil with N turns, all of the same area A and total resistance R, rotates with frequency \(\begin{align}\displaystyle \omega \end{align}\) in a magnetic field B. The maximum value of emf generated in the coil is
-
Question 18 of 28
18. Question
4 pointsThe phase difference between the alternating current and emf is \(\begin{align}\displaystyle \frac{\pi }{2}\end{align}\) . Which of the following cannot be the constituent of the circuit?
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Question 19 of 28
19. Question
4 pointsA circuit has a resistance of 12 ohm and an impedance of 15 ohm. The power factor of the circuit will be
-
Question 20 of 28
20. Question
4 pointsA coil of inductance 300 mH and resistance \(\begin{align}\displaystyle 2\Omega \end{align}\) is connected to a source of voltage \(\begin{align}\displaystyle 2V\end{align}\) . The current reaches half of its steady state value in
-
Question 21 of 28
21. Question
4 pointsIn an \(\begin{align}\displaystyle LCR\end{align}\) series a.c. circuit, the voltage across each of the components, \(\begin{align}\displaystyle L,C\end{align}\) and \(\begin{align}\displaystyle R\end{align}\) is \(\begin{align}\displaystyle 50V\end{align}\) . The voltage across the \(\begin{align}\displaystyle LC\end{align}\) combination will be
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Question 22 of 28
22. Question
4 pointsIn a \(\begin{align}\displaystyle LCR\end{align}\) circuit capacitance is changed from \(\begin{align}\displaystyle C\end{align}\) to \(\begin{align}\displaystyle 2C\end{align}\) . For the resonant frequency to remain unchanged, the inductance should be changed from \(\begin{align}\displaystyle L\end{align}\) to
-
Question 23 of 28
23. Question
4 pointsThe inductance between \(\begin{align}\displaystyle A\end{align}\) and \(\begin{align}\displaystyle D\end{align}\) is
-
Question 24 of 28
24. Question
4 pointsA transformer consisting of 300 turns in the primary and 150 turns in the secondary gives output power of 2.2kW. If the current in the secondary coil is 10 A, then the input voltage and current in the primary coil are :
-
Question 25 of 28
25. Question
4 pointsA power transmission line feeds input power at 2300 V to a step-down transformer with its primary windings having 4000 turns. The output power is delivered at 230 V by the transformer. If the current in the primary of the transformer is 5A and its efficiency is 90%, the output current would be:
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Question 26 of 28
26. Question
4 pointsIn an oscillating \(\begin{align}\displaystyle LC\end{align}\) circuit the maximum charge on the capacitor is \(\begin{align}\displaystyle Q\end{align}\) . The charge on the capacitor when the energy is stored equally between the electric and magnetic field is
-
Question 27 of 28
27. Question
4 pointsThe core of any transformer is laminated so as to
-
Question 28 of 28
28. Question
4 pointsIn a transformer, number of turns in the primary coil are 140 and that in the secondary coil are 280. If current in primary coil is 4 A, then that in the secondary coil is
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